General Science is one of the most scoring parts of the general knowledge paper. In the NDA General Ability Test, the CDS General Knowledge paper, AFCAT general awareness, the UPSC Civil Services preliminary exam, SSC and state PSC exams, a steady share of questions comes from basic physics, chemistry and biology. Most of these questions test simple, textbook ideas: units, laws, everyday phenomena, common chemicals, vitamins, diseases and the working of the human body.
This article brings together 100 of the most important General Science GK questions on these high-frequency themes. The set is divided into four parts: Physics (questions 1 to 25), Chemistry (26 to 50), Biology and the Human Body (51 to 75), and Health, Diseases, Plants, Animals and Everyday Science (76 to 100). It follows our Indian History, Indian Geography, Indian Polity and Indian Economy sets, so you can revise all five subjects in the same way.
The questions are based on NCERT science books from Classes 6 to 10, with a few points from Classes 11 and 12, so the facts are stable and exam-standard. Read each question, try to recall the answer, and only then read the short explanation, which adds the related fact that examiners often turn into a second question.
Physics (Questions 1 to 25)
1. What is the SI unit of force?
Answer: Newton (N). One newton is the force that gives a mass of 1 kg an acceleration of 1 m/s². The unit is named after Sir Isaac Newton.
2. Which law of motion is also called the law of inertia?
Answer: Newton’s first law of motion. It states that a body stays at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless an external force acts on it. Passengers jerking forward when a bus stops suddenly is an example.
3. On which law of motion does the working of a rocket depend?
Answer: Newton’s third law of motion. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction. Hot gases are pushed out backwards and the rocket is pushed forwards; the recoil of a gun works the same way.
4. What is the SI unit of work and energy?
Answer: Joule (J). One joule is the work done when a force of 1 newton moves a body through 1 metre in the direction of the force. The kilowatt-hour, used in electricity bills, equals 3.6 × 10⁶ joules.
5. What is the SI unit of power?
Answer: Watt (W). Power is the rate of doing work, so 1 watt is 1 joule per second. One horsepower is about 746 watts.
6. What is the SI unit of pressure?
Answer: Pascal (Pa). One pascal is a force of 1 newton acting on an area of 1 square metre. Normal atmospheric pressure at sea level is about 1.013 × 10⁵ Pa.
7. What is the approximate value of the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth’s surface?
Answer: 9.8 m/s². The value of g is slightly more at the poles than at the equator, and it decreases with height above the surface and with depth below it.
8. How does the weight of a body on the Moon compare with its weight on the Earth?
Answer: It is about one-sixth of its weight on the Earth. The mass of the body remains the same everywhere, but the Moon’s gravity is about one-sixth of the Earth’s, so the weight reduces.
9. What is the escape velocity from the Earth’s surface?
Answer: About 11.2 km/s. Escape velocity is the minimum speed a body needs to escape the Earth’s gravity without further propulsion. It does not depend on the mass of the body.
10. Which principle explains why a ship floats on water?
Answer: Archimedes’ principle. A body immersed in a fluid experiences an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid it displaces. A ship floats because it displaces water equal to its own weight.
11. What is the speed of light in vacuum?
Answer: About 3 × 10⁸ m/s (about 3 lakh km per second). Light from the Sun takes about 8 minutes and 20 seconds to reach the Earth. Light travels slower in water and glass than in vacuum.
12. Why does the sky appear blue?
Answer: Because of the scattering of sunlight by molecules of the atmosphere. Blue light has a shorter wavelength and is scattered much more than red light. The same scattering makes the Sun look reddish at sunrise and sunset.
13. Which phenomenon causes stars to twinkle?
Answer: Atmospheric refraction of starlight. Starlight passes through layers of air of changing density, so its path keeps changing slightly. Planets are much closer and appear as discs, so they usually do not twinkle.
14. Which phenomenon causes a mirage in a hot desert?
Answer: Total internal reflection of light. Air near the hot ground is less dense than the air above it, so light from the sky bends and is totally reflected, giving the illusion of water. Optical fibres also work on total internal reflection.
15. Which type of mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
Answer: Convex mirror. A convex mirror always forms an erect, diminished image and gives a wider field of view. Concave mirrors are used in torches, shaving mirrors and by dentists.
16. Which lens is used to correct myopia (short-sightedness)?
Answer: Concave (diverging) lens. In myopia distant objects look blurred because the image forms in front of the retina. Hypermetropia (long-sightedness) is corrected by a convex lens.
17. What is the approximate speed of sound in air at room temperature?
Answer: About 343 m/s. Sound needs a medium to travel and cannot travel through vacuum. It travels faster in liquids and fastest in solids.
18. What is the audible range of frequencies for the human ear?
Answer: 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. Sound below 20 Hz is called infrasound and sound above 20,000 Hz is called ultrasound. Bats and dolphins use ultrasound to locate objects, a process called echolocation.
19. On which principle does SONAR work?
Answer: Reflection of sound waves (echo). SONAR stands for Sound Navigation and Ranging. Ships use it to measure the depth of the sea and to locate submarines and shoals of fish.
20. What is the SI unit of electric current?
Answer: Ampere (A). Current is measured with an ammeter, which is connected in series. A voltmeter measures potential difference and is connected in parallel.
21. What does Ohm’s law state?
Answer: At constant temperature, the current through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across it (V = IR). R is the resistance of the conductor, measured in ohms (Ω). The law was given by the German physicist Georg Simon Ohm.
22. Why is an electric fuse wire made of a material with a low melting point?
Answer: So that it melts and breaks the circuit when excess current flows. A fuse is always connected in series with the live wire. Fuse wire is commonly an alloy of tin and lead.
23. Which device converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?
Answer: Electric generator (dynamo). A generator works on electromagnetic induction, discovered by Michael Faraday. An electric motor does the opposite, converting electrical energy into mechanical energy.
24. Which device is used to step up or step down an alternating voltage?
Answer: Transformer. A transformer works on mutual induction and works only with alternating current (AC). Household supply in India is 220–230 V AC at 50 Hz.
25. At which temperature are the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales equal?
Answer: −40 degrees. The two scales are related by F = (9/5)C + 32. Normal human body temperature is about 37 °C, which is 98.6 °F, and 0 °C is 273.15 K on the Kelvin scale.
Chemistry (Questions 26 to 50)
26. Who proposed the atomic theory of matter in the early 19th century?
Answer: John Dalton. Dalton’s atomic theory (1808) said that matter is made of tiny indivisible atoms. Later discoveries showed that atoms contain smaller particles.
27. Who discovered the electron?
Answer: J.J. Thomson. He discovered the electron in 1897 through cathode ray experiments. The proton is linked with Ernest Rutherford and the neutron was discovered by James Chadwick in 1932.
28. What does the atomic number of an element represent?
Answer: The number of protons in the nucleus of its atom. In a neutral atom the number of electrons equals the number of protons. The mass number is the total of protons and neutrons.
29. What are isotopes?
Answer: Atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass numbers. Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons. Protium, deuterium and tritium are the three isotopes of hydrogen.
30. Who is known as the father of the modern periodic table?
Answer: Dmitri Mendeleev. Mendeleev arranged elements by atomic mass in 1869. The modern periodic table arranges them by atomic number, based on the work of Henry Moseley.
31. Which is the lightest element?
Answer: Hydrogen. Hydrogen is also the most abundant element in the universe. Helium, the second lightest, is used in balloons because it is light and does not burn.
32. Which is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust?
Answer: Oxygen. Oxygen is followed by silicon. Aluminium is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust, followed by iron.
33. Which gas makes up the largest share of the Earth’s atmosphere?
Answer: Nitrogen (about 78 per cent). Oxygen makes up about 21 per cent and argon just under 1 per cent. Carbon dioxide is only about 0.04 per cent but is very important for the greenhouse effect.
34. Which is the only metal that is liquid at room temperature?
Answer: Mercury. Mercury is used in thermometers and barometers. Bromine is the non-metal that is liquid at room temperature.
35. Which is the hardest natural substance?
Answer: Diamond. Diamond and graphite are both allotropes of carbon. Graphite is soft, slippery and a good conductor of electricity, so it is used in pencils and electrodes.
36. What is the pH of pure water at 25 °C?
Answer: 7. A pH below 7 is acidic and above 7 is basic (alkaline). Human blood is slightly basic, with a pH of about 7.4.
37. Which acid is present in the human stomach?
Answer: Hydrochloric acid. It helps digest proteins and kills germs in food. Excess acid causes acidity, which is relieved by antacids such as milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide).
38. Which acid is present in vinegar?
Answer: Acetic acid (ethanoic acid). Other natural acids include citric acid in lemons, lactic acid in curd, tartaric acid in tamarind and formic acid in ant and nettle stings.
39. What is the chemical name of baking soda?
Answer: Sodium bicarbonate (sodium hydrogen carbonate, NaHCO₃). On heating it releases carbon dioxide, which makes cakes soft and spongy. It is also used as an antacid and in soda-acid fire extinguishers.
40. What is the chemical name of washing soda?
Answer: Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na₂CO₃·10H₂O). Washing soda is used for cleaning and for removing the permanent hardness of water. It is manufactured from common salt by the Solvay process.
41. What is the chemical name of bleaching powder?
Answer: Calcium oxychloride (CaOCl₂). Bleaching powder is used to disinfect drinking water and to bleach cotton and linen. It is prepared by passing chlorine over dry slaked lime.
42. What is plaster of Paris chemically?
Answer: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO₄·½H₂O). It is made by heating gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O). When mixed with water it sets into a hard mass, so doctors use it to support fractured bones.
43. Which gas is known as laughing gas?
Answer: Nitrous oxide (N₂O). It was once widely used as a mild anaesthetic. Nitrous oxide is also a greenhouse gas.
44. Which gas is mainly present in LPG?
Answer: Butane (with propane). LPG stands for liquefied petroleum gas. Since butane has no smell, a strong-smelling compound such as ethyl mercaptan is added so that leaks can be detected.
45. What is the main component of CNG?
Answer: Methane. CNG stands for compressed natural gas. It burns more cleanly than petrol and diesel, which is why it is used in public transport in many Indian cities.
46. Which gas is mainly produced in a biogas (gobar gas) plant?
Answer: Methane. Biogas forms when cattle dung and plant waste decompose without oxygen (anaerobic decomposition). The leftover slurry is a good manure.
47. Which gas is known as a silent killer because it is colourless and odourless?
Answer: Carbon monoxide. It is formed by incomplete burning of fuel. Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin more strongly than oxygen does, which reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
48. What is the process of coating iron with zinc to prevent rusting called?
Answer: Galvanisation. Rusting of iron needs both oxygen and moisture. Painting, oiling, greasing and alloying, as in stainless steel, also prevent rusting.
49. Brass is an alloy of which metals?
Answer: Copper and zinc. Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin, and solder is an alloy of lead and tin. Stainless steel contains iron with chromium, nickel and carbon.
50. Which radioactive element is commonly used as fuel in nuclear reactors?
Answer: Uranium (uranium-235). Energy is released by nuclear fission, in which a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nuclei. The Sun produces its energy by nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium.
Biology and the Human Body (Questions 51 to 75)
51. Which is known as the basic structural and functional unit of life?
Answer: The cell. The cell was first observed by Robert Hooke in 1665 in a thin slice of cork. Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first to see living cells under his microscope.
52. Which cell organelle is called the powerhouse of the cell?
Answer: Mitochondria. Mitochondria release energy from food during cellular respiration and store it as ATP (adenosine triphosphate). They have their own DNA.
53. Which cell organelle is known as the suicide bag of the cell?
Answer: Lysosome. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes that break down worn-out parts of the cell. If the cell is damaged, they may burst and digest the cell itself.
54. What is the full form of DNA?
Answer: Deoxyribonucleic acid. DNA carries genetic information. Its double-helix structure was described by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953.
55. How many chromosomes are present in a normal human body cell?
Answer: 46 (23 pairs). Of these, 22 pairs are autosomes and one pair is sex chromosomes. Females have XX and males have XY, so the father’s chromosome decides the sex of the child.
56. Which is the largest organ of the human body?
Answer: The skin. The liver is the largest internal organ and the largest gland of the body. The skin protects the body and helps control its temperature.
57. Which is the largest and longest bone in the human body?
Answer: The femur (thigh bone). The stapes in the middle ear is the smallest bone. An adult human skeleton has 206 bones.
58. How many chambers does the human heart have?
Answer: Four. The two upper chambers are atria and the two lower chambers are ventricles. A normal adult heart beats about 72 times per minute at rest.
59. What is the normal blood pressure of a healthy adult?
Answer: 120/80 mm Hg. 120 is the systolic pressure, when the heart contracts, and 80 is the diastolic pressure, when it relaxes. Blood pressure is measured with a sphygmomanometer.
60. Which component of blood carries oxygen?
Answer: Red blood cells (through haemoglobin). Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein that binds oxygen. Red blood cells are made in the bone marrow and live for about 120 days.
61. Which blood cells fight infection in the body?
Answer: White blood cells (leucocytes). White blood cells are part of the immune system. Platelets help in the clotting of blood.
62. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
Answer: O negative (O−). Group O red cells carry neither A nor B antigens. AB positive is known as the universal recipient. The ABO blood groups were discovered by Karl Landsteiner.
63. Which organ of the body produces insulin?
Answer: Pancreas (islets of Langerhans). Insulin lowers the level of sugar in the blood. Lack of insulin or poor response to it causes diabetes mellitus.
64. Which gland is known as the master gland of the human body?
Answer: Pituitary gland. It controls many other endocrine glands through its hormones. It is located at the base of the brain and is itself regulated by the hypothalamus.
65. Deficiency of which element causes goitre?
Answer: Iodine. Iodine is needed by the thyroid gland to make the hormone thyroxine. Iodised salt is used to prevent goitre.
66. Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination of voluntary movements?
Answer: Cerebellum. The cerebrum is the largest part and controls thinking, memory and voluntary actions. The medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions such as heartbeat, breathing and vomiting.
67. What is the functional unit of the kidney?
Answer: Nephron. Each kidney has about a million nephrons, which filter blood and form urine. Urea is the main nitrogenous waste removed by the kidneys.
68. Where does most digestion and absorption of food take place?
Answer: In the small intestine. Finger-like projections called villi increase the surface area for absorption. The large intestine mainly absorbs water.
69. Which juice is produced by the liver and helps in the digestion of fats?
Answer: Bile. Bile is stored in the gall bladder. It emulsifies fats, breaking them into small droplets so that enzymes can act on them; bile itself has no digestive enzyme.
70. Which enzyme in saliva begins the digestion of starch?
Answer: Salivary amylase (ptyalin). It converts starch into sugar (maltose). Protein digestion starts in the stomach with the enzyme pepsin.
71. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?
Answer: Vitamin A (retinol). Carrots, green leafy vegetables, milk and fish liver oil are good sources. Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin.
72. Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy?
Answer: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Scurvy causes bleeding gums and slow healing of wounds. Citrus fruits and Indian gooseberry (amla) are rich in vitamin C.
73. Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets in children?
Answer: Vitamin D (calciferol). Vitamin D helps absorb calcium for strong bones. The skin makes it in sunlight, which is why it is called the sunshine vitamin.
74. Which vitamin is essential for the clotting of blood?
Answer: Vitamin K. Lack of vitamin K delays clotting. Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat-soluble, while vitamins B and C are water-soluble.
75. Deficiency of which vitamin causes beriberi?
Answer: Vitamin B1 (thiamine). Beriberi affects the nerves and heart. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vitamin B3 (niacin), and pernicious anaemia by deficiency of vitamin B12.
Health, Diseases, Plants, Animals and Everyday Science (Questions 76 to 100)
76. Which organism causes malaria?
Answer: Plasmodium, a protozoan parasite. Malaria spreads through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. Dengue, chikungunya and Zika are spread mainly by the Aedes mosquito.
77. Which disease is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Answer: Tuberculosis (TB). The bacterium was discovered by Robert Koch in 1882. The BCG vaccine is given to infants in India to protect against severe forms of TB.
78. Which of these diseases is caused by a virus: cholera, typhoid or polio?
Answer: Polio. Polio is caused by the poliovirus, while cholera and typhoid are bacterial diseases. The World Health Organization certified India polio-free in 2014.
79. Which virus causes AIDS?
Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV attacks helper T-cells and weakens the immune system. The ELISA test is commonly used to screen for HIV infection.
80. Who developed the first vaccine?
Answer: Edward Jenner. In 1796 he developed a vaccine against smallpox using material from cowpox. Smallpox was declared eradicated worldwide in 1980.
81. Who discovered penicillin, the first antibiotic?
Answer: Alexander Fleming. Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 from the mould Penicillium notatum. Antibiotics work against bacteria, not against viruses.
82. Who developed the vaccine against rabies?
Answer: Louis Pasteur. Pasteur is also known for pasteurisation, which kills germs in milk by heating. Rabies spreads mainly through the bite of an infected dog.
83. In which part of a plant cell does photosynthesis take place?
Answer: Chloroplasts. Chloroplasts contain the green pigment chlorophyll, which absorbs sunlight. In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water are converted into glucose, and oxygen is released.
84. Which plant tissue carries water and minerals from the roots to the leaves?
Answer: Xylem. Phloem carries food made in the leaves to other parts of the plant, a process called translocation. Together, xylem and phloem form the vascular tissue.
85. What is the loss of water vapour from the aerial parts of a plant, mainly through stomata, called?
Answer: Transpiration. Transpiration cools the plant and helps pull water up from the roots. Stomata are tiny pores, mostly on the underside of leaves.
86. Which plant hormone promotes cell division?
Answer: Cytokinin. Auxins promote growth of the shoot tip and cell elongation, gibberellins promote stem elongation, ethylene helps ripening of fruits, and abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth inhibitor.
87. Which bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous plants fix atmospheric nitrogen?
Answer: Rhizobium. Pulses such as gram, peas and beans have root nodules with Rhizobium, which make nitrogen available to the plant and enrich the soil. This is why pulses are used in crop rotation.
88. Who gave the theory of evolution by natural selection?
Answer: Charles Darwin. Darwin explained it in his book On the Origin of Species (1859). Earlier, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck had proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters.
89. Who is known as the father of genetics?
Answer: Gregor Johann Mendel. Mendel worked out the laws of inheritance through experiments on garden pea plants. His laws are the law of dominance, segregation and independent assortment.
90. Who is known as the father of taxonomy and introduced binomial nomenclature?
Answer: Carl Linnaeus. Under binomial nomenclature every species has a two-part scientific name, genus and species. The scientific name of humans is Homo sapiens.
91. Which is the largest living animal on Earth?
Answer: The blue whale. The blue whale is a mammal and breathes through lungs. Whales, dolphins and bats are mammals even though they live in water or fly.
92. Which is the largest living bird?
Answer: The ostrich. The ostrich cannot fly but is the fastest-running bird. The hummingbird is the smallest bird.
93. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
Answer: Mars. Mars looks red because of iron oxide on its surface. Jupiter is the largest planet, Mercury is the smallest and closest to the Sun, and Venus is the hottest planet.
94. What is a light-year a unit of?
Answer: Distance. A light-year is the distance light travels in vacuum in one year, about 9.46 × 10¹² km. It is used to measure distances between stars.
95. Why is ozone in the stratosphere important for life?
Answer: It absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiation coming from the Sun. The ozone layer is depleted by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). The Montreal Protocol of 1987 was signed to phase out ozone-depleting substances.
96. Which gas is mainly responsible for the greenhouse effect caused by human activities?
Answer: Carbon dioxide. Methane, nitrous oxide, water vapour and CFCs are other greenhouse gases. The greenhouse effect traps heat and its increase causes global warming.
97. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
Answer: Barometer. A sudden fall in barometer reading indicates a storm. A hygrometer measures humidity and an anemometer measures wind speed.
98. Which instrument records the waves produced by an earthquake?
Answer: Seismograph. The size (magnitude) of an earthquake is expressed on the Richter scale, which is logarithmic, so each whole number increase means about ten times larger ground motion. The point on the surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre.
99. Why does ice float on water?
Answer: Because ice is less dense than liquid water. Water is densest at 4 °C. Because ice floats, lakes freeze from the top, which keeps aquatic life alive in the water below.
100. Why does a pressure cooker cook food faster?
Answer: Higher pressure raises the boiling point of water. Inside the cooker water boils above 100 °C, so food cooks faster. On high mountains air pressure is low, water boils below 100 °C and cooking takes longer.
Quick Revision Tips
- Make one table of SI units and the scientists they honour: newton (force), joule (energy), watt (power), pascal (pressure), hertz (frequency), ampere (current), volt (potential difference), ohm (resistance) and kelvin (temperature). Unit questions are among the easiest marks in the paper.
- Learn everyday phenomena with their reason in one line: the blue sky is due to scattering of light, the twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric refraction, a rainbow is due to dispersion, refraction and internal reflection, and a mirage is due to total internal reflection. Examiners usually give the phenomenon and ask for the principle.
- Keep the chemical names of common substances together: baking soda (sodium bicarbonate), washing soda (sodium carbonate), bleaching powder (calcium oxychloride), plaster of Paris (calcium sulphate hemihydrate), quicklime (calcium oxide) and laughing gas (nitrous oxide). Many chemistry questions are just these matches.
- Revise vitamins and minerals as a grid of name, chemical name and deficiency disease: A (night blindness), B1 (beriberi), B3 (pellagra), C (scurvy), D (rickets), K (poor blood clotting), iron (anaemia) and iodine (goitre).
- Classify diseases by the organism that causes them: bacteria (tuberculosis, cholera, typhoid, tetanus), viruses (polio, measles, rabies, AIDS, COVID-19), protozoa (malaria, kala-azar, amoebic dysentery) and fungi (ringworm, athlete’s foot). Questions on the cause and the vector of a disease are very common.
Conclusion
General Science rewards a clear grasp of basics more than memory alone. If you understand and can recall these 100 questions, you will have covered a large share of the static science asked in NDA, CDS, AFCAT, UPSC, SSC and state PSC papers. Read this list alongside the NCERT science books for Classes 6 to 10, practise previous-year papers, keep a separate note of recent space missions and scientific developments from current affairs, and return to the sections where you made mistakes.
FAQs
1. How many General Science questions are asked in NDA, CDS and AFCAT?
The number varies from paper to paper, so it is better not to prepare for a fixed count. In NDA the General Ability Test has separate physics, chemistry and general science portions, and science is a regular part of the CDS General Knowledge paper and AFCAT general awareness as well.
2. Is NCERT enough for General Science GK?
For most competitive exams, NCERT science books from Classes 6 to 10 cover the large majority of General Science questions. NDA aspirants should also revise the basic physics and chemistry of Classes 11 and 12, and UPSC aspirants should add science and technology from current affairs.
3. Which topics of General Science are most important for defence exams?
High-frequency areas include units and measurement, motion and laws of Newton, light and sound, electricity and magnetism, acids, bases and salts, metals and non-metals, common chemical names, the human body systems, vitamins and minerals, diseases and their causes, and basic plant biology. This article covers each of these areas.
4. How should I revise science facts that are easy to confuse?
Group similar facts into small tables, such as units with scientists, vitamins with deficiency diseases, diseases with their causing organisms and phenomena with their principles. Revising a table several times is easier than revising scattered facts, and it helps with match-the-following questions.
5. Are these General Science GK questions useful for UPSC and SSC as well?
Yes. The concepts here form the base of science questions in the UPSC Civil Services preliminary exam, SSC CGL, CHSL and MTS, railway exams and state PSC exams. UPSC aspirants should build on them with science and technology current affairs.
