100 Most Expected Polity Questions For NDA CDS 2023

The NDA CDS exam necessitates a thorough knowledge of the Indian political system, including its structure, functions, and dynamics. Aspirants must have a good grasp of the Constitution of India, its history, and its provisions. To assist aspirants in preparing for the NDA CDS exam, we have compiled a list of the top 100 polity questions. These questions cover a wide range of subjects, including the Indian Constitution, Indian politics, and governance. They are intended to assess the candidate’s knowledge, analytical abilities, and ability to make connections between various aspects of Indian politics.

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Whether you’re a seasoned polity expert or just getting started, this list will give you valuable insight into the types of questions you’ll face in the NDA CDS polity section.

• All doubts & disputes in connection with the election of the President are inquired into & decided.
• the Supreme Court
• the Election Commission.
• the Parliament
• Prime Minister

• Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution –
• Rajendra Prasad
• J. B. Kripalani
• J. L. Nehru
• B. R. Ambedkar

• Who among the given was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946
• K M Munshi
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad
• Mahatma Gandhi
• Abul Kalam Azad

• The 3-tier of the Panchayati Raj System consists of
• Janapad Panchayat, Taluka Panchayat, Anchal Panchayat
• Gram Sabha, Anchal Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti
• Gram Panchayat, Block & Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad
• Gram Sabha, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad

• Consider the following statements: The Governor of a State has the power to appoint:
• Judges of the High Court
• Members of the State Public Service Commission
• Members of the State Finance Commission
• The Accountant General
• Which of the following of these statements is correct –
  • 2 & 3
  • 1 & 2
  • 1, 3 & 4
  • 1, 2, 3 & 4

• From the Constitution of which country, the provision of Federation was borrowed while framing the Constitution of India –
• UK
• USA
• Canada
• Switzerland

• Which of the following is NOT a correct statement with respect to Freedom of speech and expression in India?
• It is enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
• It is not an absolute right to express one’s thoughts freely.
• It cannot be curtailed by legislation.
• It can be suspended in emergency

• Supreme Court has made the Right to Free Education as part of which among the following rights?
• Right to life
• Right against Exploitation
• Right to freedom of speech and expression
• Cultural and Educational Rights

• In the judgment, the Supreme Court fixed the upper limit for the combined reservation quota i.e., should not exceed 50% of seats.
• Indra Sawhney & Others vs Union of India, 1992
• Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, 1985
• Vishaka State of Rajasthan, 1997
• D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

• ___empowers both Centre and the states to provide 10% reservation to the EWS category of society in government jobs and educational institutions.
• 103rd CAA 2019
• 104th CAA 2020
• 102nd CAA 2018
• 101st CAA 2016

• The____Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts.
• 7th
• 8th
• 9th
• 10th

• Consider the following:
• Steering Committee – Rajendra Prasad
• Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
• Union Constitution Committee – Jawahar lal Nehru.
• Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Vallabhbai Patel Which among the above is wrongly matched?
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 4 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • None

• Consider the following statements:
• Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.
• H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.
  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

• Which of the following statements about the formation of the Constituent Assembly is/are correct?
• The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen based on the provincial elections of 1946.
• The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the Princely States.
• The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not influenced by opinions expressed by the public.
• To create a sense of collective participation, submissions were solicited from the public.
  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3
  • 3 and 4
  • 1 and 4

• The Mandal Commission was constituted during the tenure of which the following prime ministers.
• Indira Gandhi
• Morarji Desai
• Rajiv Gandhi
• V P Singh

• Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Constitution and state which of them are correct with the help of the given codes:
• The objective resolution proposed by Pt. Nehru ultimately became the Preamble.
• It is not justiciable in nature.
• It cannot be amended.
• It cannot override the specific provisions of the Constitution.
  • Only 1 and 2
  • Only 1, 2 and 4
  • Only 1, 2 and 3
  • Only 2, 3 and 4

• The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it:
• Uses value-loaded words.
• Contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers.
• is a source of power and limitation.
• Gives an exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution

• Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
• List-I List-II
• (State) (Full Statehood Granted in)
• A. Goa 1. 1966
• B. Haryana 2. 1972
• C. Meghalaya 3. 1976
• D. Sikkim 4. 1987
  • 3 1 2 4
  • 4 2 1 3
  • 3 2 1 4
  • 4 1 2 3

• Consider the following statements:
• Quo-warranto is an immensely powerful instrument for safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices.
• A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
  • Only 1
  • Only 2
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

• An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:
• War, external aggression, or internal disturbance.
• War, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
• Financial instability in the country.

• Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the states in India?
• The National Development Council
• The Governor’s Conference
• Zonal councils
• The Inter-state council
  • 1, 2, and 3 only
  • 1, 3, and 4 only
  • 3 and 4 only
  • 4 only

• With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not matched?
• Forests: Concurrent List
• Stock Exchanges: Concurrent list
• Post office saving Bank: Union List
• Public Health: State list

• Consider the following statements:
• The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States by passing a resolution in a simple majority.
• Jammu and Kashmir have been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

• Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are correct?
• Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament
• In the matter of residuary powers, the Constitution of India follows the Constitution of Australia
• The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is the Parliament
• The Government of India Act, of 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General
  • 1, 2 and 3
  • 2 and 3
  • 1 and 4
  • 3 and 4

• Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (a) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
• Assertion (a): federalism is not dead in India.
• Reason (R): New regions are constantly demanding statehood.
  • Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)
  • Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)
  • (a) is true, but (R) is false
  • (R) is true, but (a) is false

• What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by the President of India?
• 6 months
• 7.5 months
• 8 months
• 10 months

• Which amendment of the constitution is related to the reorganization of states on a linguistic basis?
• 1st
• 7th
• 10th
• 15th

• The first no-confidence motion was moved in the Lok Sabha in which of the following years?
• 1960
• 1963
• 1965
• 1969

• Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?
• Governor
• Chief Minister
• President
• Vice President

• What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
• Five years
• During the ‘pleasure’ of the President
• Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
• Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.

• Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and the division of each State into territorial constituencies?
• The President of India
• The Parliament of India
• The Chief Election Commissioner of India
• The Lok Sabha alone

• Delimitation of constituencies and determination of constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are done by?
• Election Commission
• Delimitation Commission
• Planning Commission
• Election Commission with the assistance of the Delimitation Commission

• Who among the following can only be removed from the office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
• Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
• Chief Election Commissioner
• Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
• Attorney General for India
  • 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • 1, 2, and 4 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only

• Consider the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:
• He shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• He shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • Only 1
  • Only 2
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

• Which of the following statements relating to the comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
• The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts.
• The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with the powers of the Union Government.
  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

• Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?
• Attorney General
• Cabinet Secretary
• Home Secretary
• Principal Secretary of the P.M.

• Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
• Assertion(a): The All-India Services violate the federal principle of the Constitution as well as the autonomy of States.
• Reason (R): The All-India Service officers are governed by Central Government rules and the State Government do not have full control over them.
  • Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • A is true but R is false
  • A is false but R is true

• Consider the following statements:
• The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.
• The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for further employment under the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • Only 1
  • Only 2
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

• Who was the first President of India to make use of ‘Pocket Veto’?
• Zakir Hussain
• Sanjeeva Reddy
• R. Venkatraman
• Gyani Zail Singh

• The Constitution of India authorizes the parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the Finance Commission of India and the way they should be selected. In this regard consider the following statements:
• The commission consists of five members including its chairperson.
• Its chairperson necessarily should be an economist.
• Its members are appointed from different fields such as finance and accounts, administration, judicial, etc.
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

• Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
• List-I (Finance Commission). List II (Chairman)
• First Finance Commission 1. P.V. Rajamannar
• Fourth Finance Commission 2. K.C. Neogy
• Sixth Finance Commission 3. Y.B. Chavan
• Eighth Finance Commission 4. Brahamananda Reddy
  • A. 2 1 4 3
  • B. 4 3 2 1
  • C. 2 3 4 1
  • D. 4 1 2 3

• The accounts of which of the following are not audited by CAG?
• Municipal institutions
• State Governments
• Government Companies
• Central Government

• The ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble are borrowed from the Constitution of which country?
• French Constitution
• Australian Constitution
• British Constitution
• USSR Constitution

• Under article 368 the Indian Constitution provides methods of Amendment of different portions of the constitution.
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

• Which among the following is NOT a fundamental duty of a citizen?
• Respect for the constitution
• Respect for the National Flag
• Respect for the National Anthem
• Respect for the government

• When does the vice president act as the president, which among the following is/ are true?
• He/ She remains the chairman of the Rajya Sabha and performs the duties of the chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
• Lok Sabha Speaker performs the duty of the chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• None of the above

• Which of the following is/are qualifications to be appointed as governor of a state?
• Should be a citizen of India.
• Should not be a resident of the state of which he/she works as Governor.
• Should have completed the age of 35 years. Select the correct option from the codes given below:
  • Only 1 & 2
  • Only 1 & 3
  • Only 1
  • 1, 2 & 3

• Which of the following committees of parliament considers the question of contempt of the House?
• Select Committee
• Committee on privileges
• Committee on petitions
• None of them

• Which among the following acts, incorporated the 11th Fundamental duty in Indian Constitution?
• 42nd Amendment Act
• 44th Amendment Act
• 86th Amendment Act
• 100th Amendment Act

• Which of the following is the primary objective to bring a Privilege Motion in the Indian Parliament?
• To raise a matter of urgent public importance
• To raise demand for the privilege of the ministers
• To raise a matter related to breach of parliamentary privileges.
• To raise a matter such as the impeachment of the President

• In which of the following circumstances, the speaker and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha must vacate their offices?
• at the wish of the President
• when the ruling party loses confidence
• when they are no longer members of parliament
• immediately after the dissolution of Lok Sabha

• Which of the following Articles directs the state to protect and improve the environment?
• Article 44
• Article 45
• Article 48
• Article 48A

• Which of the following provisions cannot be amended by a simple majority?
• Admission or establishment of new states
• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
• Directive Principles of State Policy
• Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas

• Which of the following is not in the domain of the Union government?
• Defense
• Foreign affairs
• Communication
• Health

• In which case the Supreme Court characterized federalism as its ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution of India?
• Keshvanand Bharti case
• Bommai case
• LIC of India case
• Minerva Mills case

• Whose prior recommendation is needed for the introduction of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
• The Council of Ministers
• The Prime Minister
• The Speaker
• The President

• Which of the following is correct with respect to the electoral college of Vice- President?
• It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament
• It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies Select the correct option from the codes given below:
  • Only 1
  • Only 2
  • Both 1 & 2
  • Neither 1 & 2

• Which of the following committees are chaired by the Prime Minister?
• Political Affairs Committee
• Parliamentary Affairs Committee
• Economic Affairs Committee
• Appointments CommitteeSelect the correct option from the codes given below:
  1. Only 1 & 2
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 1, 3 & 4
  4. All the above

• Which of the following Directive Principles were added by the 42nd amendment?
• Equal justice and free legal aid
• Participation of workers in the management of industries 3.Protection of environment, forests, and wildlife.
• Promotion of cottage industriesSelect the correct options from the codes given below:
  • Only 1 & 2
  • Only 1 & 3
  • Only 1, 2 & 3
  • 1, 2,3 & 4

• Which articles of the Constitution deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures, and so on of the Supreme Court of India?
• Articles 111 to 123
• Articles 124 to 147
• Articles 167 to 185
• Articles 224 to 267

• Which of the following are affected due to National Emergency?
• Center-state relations
• Life of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly
• Fundamental RightsSelect the correct option from the codes given below:
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 1 & 2
  3. Only 1 & 3
  4. All the above

• A House of the state legislature can declare the seat of a member vacant if he absents himself from all its meeting for a period of how many days?
• 20 days
• 30 days
• 45 days
• 60 days

• The Parliament can create new all-India services under which article of the constitution of India?
• Article 115
• Article 300
• Article 312
• Article 320

• Which of the following are the ex-officio members of the National Human Rights Commission?
• Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities
• Chairperson of the National Commission for SCs
• Chairperson of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Select the correct option from the codes given below:
  • Only 1
  • Only 1 & 2
  • Only 2 & 3
  • 1, 2 & 3

• Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the Attorney General of India?
• He has the right to an audience in all courts in the territory of India.
• He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament.
• He does not enjoy all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.
  1. Only 1
  2. Only 1 & 2
  3. Only 2 & 3
  4. 1, 2 & 3

• Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj?
• Article 36
• Article 39
• Article 40
• Article 48

• The decision to conduct Panchayat Elections is taken by which of the following?
• The Central Government
• The State Government
• The District Judge
• The Election Commission

• If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
• One month
• Three months
• Six months
• One year

• Which of the following committees is not concerned with Panchayati Raj?
• Santhanam Committee
• Ashok Mehta Committee
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
• V.K.R.V. Rao Committee

• Point out the difference between the local government in India before and after the Constitutional Amendments in 1992:
• It has become mandatory to hold regular elections for the local government bodies.
• 1/3rd of positions are reserved for women.
• Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.
  • 1 only
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 1, 2 and 3
  • 2 and 3 only

• Which of the following principles of Panchsheel is correct?
• These are a set of five principles governing relations between States
• The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly independent States after decolonization would be able to develop a new and more principled approach to international relations
• The first formal codification in treaty form was done in an agreement between China and India
  • 1 and 2 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3
  • 1 and 3 only

• Parliamentary Democracy is one where:
• a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place
• the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected representatives.
• the parliamentarians have delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents.
  • 1, 2 and 3
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 only

• Which of the following are the features of the ideology of utilitarianism?
• Utilitarians believed that all value derives from the land
• The most celebrated spokesmen of utilitarianism were Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill
• Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could be ruled through indigenous laws and customs
• Utilitarians were advocates of the idea of the ‘greatest good for the greatest number of people.
  • 1 and 4 only
  • 2 and 4 only
  • 1, 2 and 4
  • 2 and 3

• Which of the following is/are true relating to Nelson Mandela?
• He was the first President of South Africa.
• Mandela spent 18 years in prison on Robben Island.
• Mandela became the President in 1990 after his release from prison.
  • 1 and 3 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 2 only
  • 1, 2 and 3

• What is the importance of developing the Chabahar Port by India?
• India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
• India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
• India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
• Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India

• One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
• Privileges
• Restraints
• Competition
• Ideology

• Vote on Account is meant for?
• Vote on the report of CAG
• To meet unforeseen expenditure
• Appropriating funds are pending due to the passing of the budget.
• None of the above/ More than one of the above

• The modern state system with its territorial sovereignty came into existence first in Europe in the wake of the:
• Treaty of Versailles
• Congress of Vienna
• Treaty of Westphalia
• Congress of Berlin

• Which of the following statement/s about the Right to negative vote is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
• The Election Commission of India wanted the ‘None of the above’ button on the electronic voting machines should be offered to voters.
• The public interest litigation, in the Supreme Court for the NOTA option, was filed by the Association for Democratic Reforms.
• Elections in a constituency will be held again if NOTA gets the highest votes.
• The candidate with the highest number of votes will be declared elected even if she/ he receives less than the NOTA votes.
  • Only I and II are correct.
  • Only II and III are correct.
  • Only III and IV are correct.
  • Only I and IV are correct.

• Pivot to Asia’ is the strategy of the foreign policy of:
• India
• Japan
• China
• U. S. A

• In a single transferable vote system, each voter is required to:
• Indicate one preference more than the seats to be filled up.
• Indicate one preference less than the total seats to be filled up.
• Indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to be elected.
• Indicate only a single preference.

• Which one of the following statements is not correct?
• The Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by both houses of Parliament separately with a special majority.
• Constitutional cases in Supreme Court are heard by a minimum of five judges.
• Freedom of the press is included in the fundamental right – Freedom of speech and expression.
• Zakir Hussain was the first Vice President of India

• In which of the Indian Provinces the first Communist Government was established?
• Tamil Nadu
• Andhra Pradesh
• Kerala
• West Bengal

• Voting right by the youth at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the general election of?
• 1987
• 1988
• 1989
• 1990

• Which one of the following statements about Electoral Government in India is not correct?
• The superintendence, direction, and control of elections are vested in the Election Commission of India.
• There is one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency.
• The Parliament has the power to make laws relating to the delimitation of constituencies.
• The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinize the validity of a law relating to the delimitation of constituencies.

• The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of electoral democracy which is based on.
• Right to education
• Freedom of speech
• Right to equality
• Universal adult franchise

• Which of the following statements is/are correct?
• A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India.
• As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if a person is convicted of any offense and sentenced to imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be disqualified to contest the election. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • Only 1
  • Only 2
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither I nor 2

• Which one among the following is not an attribute of sustainability of the Indian democratic model?
• Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns
• Sustained economic growth especially after the 1990s.
• Regular elections in the center and states since the 1950s
• A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure

• Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?
• The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid.
• The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid.
• The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election.
  • 1 and 2
  • Only 3
  • 2 and 3
  • All of these

• The right to vote and to be elected in India is a
• Fundamental Right
• Natural Right
• Constitutional Right
• Legal Right

• Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
• In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
• According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in LokSabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the DeputySpeaker’s to the Opposition.
  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

• The right to vote and to be elected in India is a
• Fundamental Right
• Natural Right
• Constitutional Right
• Legal Right

• Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
• In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
• According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in LokSabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the DeputySpeaker’s to the Opposition.
  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

• For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
• anyone residing in India.
• a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
• any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
• any citizen of India

• Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms?
• Installation of electronic voting machines
• Appointment of election Commissioner
• Registration of Political parties
• Disqualifying the offenders

• Who among the following was the chairperson of the Provincial Constitution committee of the Constituent Assembly?
• Jawaharlal Nehru
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
• J.B. Kripalani

• How many members can be nominated to Lok Sabha by President?
• 0
• 2
• 3
• 4

• Which among the following constitution is like Indian Constitution because of a strong center?
• USA
• Canada
• England
• Japan

• What fraction of Rajya Sabha members retire after every two years?
• 2/3
• 1/3
• 1/2
• 1/6

• The constitution of India derives its ultimate authority from?
• Supreme Court of India
• Parliament of India
• People of India
• Constituent Assembly of India

• Which amendment of the constitution added Administrative Tribunals?
• 42nd amendment act
• 44th amendment act
• 46th amendment act
• 49th amendment act

• “Test of reasonableness” is a very important consequence of the following articles.
• Article 13
• Article 14
• Article15
• Article 16

• The provision for having a Finance Commission to sort out the revenue-sharing arrangement between states and the Centre is part of the Constitution under which among the following articles?
• Article 275
• Article 280
• Article 282
• Article 285

• Under which act, the legislative council was given the power of discussing the budget in the British Indian Parliament?
• Indian Councils Act, 1861
• Government of India Act, 1858
• Indian Councils Act, 1892
• Government of India Act, 1909

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Also read:

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• 100 Most Expected Polity Questions For NDA CDS 2023